Given that women control access to sex and access to reproduction.
Given that women have a different mating strategy from men.
Given that women determine the outcome of elections.
Given that women prefer anti-liberty policies.
Given that in the modern economy women are more easily employable than men. (Or rather, that the distribution of women is heavier in the middle, to the disadvantage of men in the lower two quintiles.)
Given that women are financially capable of raising children on their own, and are doing so in record numbers.
Given that the only sector in which women do not dominate is in the upper quintile of intellectual ability, and therefore the upper incomes in the private sector.
Do women not have both in logic and in practice, the power to effectively enslave men by legislative means?
Women evolved in order to manipulate one group of men in order to gain control of another group of men. The agrarian order changed that for a short time.
Women evolved to seek the best alpha mates that they could obtain, then use sex to gain the resources and cooperation of beta males, once they have their children.
Men could cooperate politically because they only differ in ability. But women differ from men in that they do not seek liberty to succeed in order to obtain access to sex and reproduction. Women already control access to sex and reproduction.
So can men and women cooperate in a democratic order if it is possible within that political order to conduct involuntary transfers?