Good Question. Here is the best answer.

Strangely enough, the story of Jesus, assuming he existed, was integrated into an existing religious history, all of which was not ‘white’ so much as the agrarian and urban Vedic, Persian and finally Roman ‘common people’ and the Roman military, rather than semitic (Mithraism) for the pastoralists (poor peoples).

Jesus is a god for peasants, poor, women, and slaves, and spread by peasants, poor, women and slaves – as a REVOLT against aristocracy of the western, anatolian, and persian ‘whites’, in the same way that Marxism/Socialism/Postmodernism/Feminism today are pseudoscientific religions that for peasants, poor, women, and those who cannot compete in the market other than by falsehoods.

The ‘white’ religions were (and arguably remain) aristocratic and masculine, and the Jesus myth was invented, like that of Muhammad, to compete with the dominant mythos of the greco-roman world – Homer’s trials of Achilles.

So while jesus was a jew, and his story largely a fiction created by Saul, and improved as was marxism was by many hands in many regions, all pulling little bits of one religion or another and pasting them in as they could, and while the underclasses the religion was ‘sold’ to, were largely levantine (underclasses), the empire adopted, and the germanics evolved, a religion in which jesus was much closer to the ‘whitish’ mithra, and god was much closer to the indo-european dayus pitar(zeus pater, dios pater, jupiter.)

https://www.quora.com/Was-Jesus-a-white-man-Why-do-Caucasian-people-believe-he-was-a-white-man

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