May 26, 2020, 11:29 PM
by Michael Churchill
Been thinking more about the concept that Christianity created a market for male virtue that was administered by women.
As Christianity became the dominant religion, men were bent into women’s moral frame. This became more pronounced with universal suffrage — and took another step-function higher with universal wealth beginning in the 1960s and 70s.
Thus today in wealthy countries the moral frame is almost completely dictated by women. Is that natural? It doesn’t seem so. Clearly it is un-competitive civilizationally, as reflected in plunging European birthrates (compared to Africa and Middle East in particular).
What REALLY was the moral frame in pre-Christian times. Women must have had a fair amount of moral sway in Rome, for instance. It was a very sophisticated place and women are the glue that holds communities together.
And … how “cool” was it to act psychopathically toward other people back in Roman times? Do we really know? If the man of the house was boinking the slave girl would his wife really have no say in the matter?